NVQ level 5 in ICT (information communication technology)
Semester 2 Examination Local Area Networks (LAN) Final Examination (MCQ)
What statement describes the function of the Address Resolution Protocol?
Select one:
a. ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on a different network
b. ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on the local network
c. ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on a different network
d. ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on the local network
Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
Select one:
a. Switch
b. Hub
c. Router
d. Host
Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
Select one or more:
a. 10.1.1.1
b. 224.6.6.6
c. 192.168.5.5
d. 172.32.5.2
e. 172.16.4.4
f. 192.167.10.10
Where is a switch specified in the OSI model?
Select one:
a. Data Link layer
b. Physical layer
c. Application layer
d. Session layer
Which function is provided by TCP?
Select one:
a. Path determination for data packets
b. Communication session control
c. Detection of missing packets
d. Data encapsulation
What is an advantage of using IPv6?
Select one:
a. Faster connectivity
b. More frequencies
c. Higher bandwidth
d. More addresses for networks and hosts
Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below
Select one:
a. 11100101
b. 11100111
c. 11110010
d. 11011011
e. 11110110
VLSM stands for
Select one:
a. Virtual Language for Signal Messaging
b. Variable Long Subnet Messaging
c. Variable Length Subnet Mask
d. Very Large Sequential Mask
Select one:
a. ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on a different network
b. ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on the local network
c. ARP is used to discover the MAC address of any host on a different network
d. ARP is used to discover the IP address of any host on the local network
Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
Select one:
a. Switch
b. Hub
c. Router
d. Host
Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
Select one or more:
a. 10.1.1.1
b. 224.6.6.6
c. 192.168.5.5
d. 172.32.5.2
e. 172.16.4.4
f. 192.167.10.10
Where is a switch specified in the OSI model?
Select one:
a. Data Link layer
b. Physical layer
c. Application layer
d. Session layer
Which function is provided by TCP?
Select one:
a. Path determination for data packets
b. Communication session control
c. Detection of missing packets
d. Data encapsulation
What is an advantage of using IPv6?
Select one:
a. Faster connectivity
b. More frequencies
c. Higher bandwidth
d. More addresses for networks and hosts
Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below
Select one:
a. 11100101
b. 11100111
c. 11110010
d. 11011011
e. 11110110
VLSM stands for
Select one:
a. Virtual Language for Signal Messaging
b. Variable Long Subnet Messaging
c. Variable Length Subnet Mask
d. Very Large Sequential Mask
Local Area Networks (LAN) Final Examination (MCQ) (10_20)
Which statement describes the logical topology for a LAN?
Select one:
a. It describes how computers access the LAN medium
b. It defines how computers connect to a LAN
c. It depicts the locations of main routers and switches in a LAN
d. It lists the number of computers, routers, and switches on the LAN
ABC Company requires preventive maintenance for all local network cabling once a year. Which task should be included in the preventive maintenance program?
Select one:
a. Inspect all patch cables for breaks
b. Replace all cable supports to prevent loose attachment points
c. Replace all labeling on the cables
d. Disconnect and reconnect all patch cables
A customer is considering a multipurpose device to create a home network. Which of the following can be considering as a multipurpose network device?
Select one:
a. Integrated Services Router.
b. Router
c. Web server
d. Wireless access point
e. Email server
Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?
Select one:
a. Physical layer
b. Session layer
c. Application layer
d. Data Link layer
Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two)
Select one or more:
a. Provides segmentation
b. Contains collisions
c. Allows switches to route traffic between sub-interfaces
d. Added security
e. Dedicated bandwidth
What is an advantage of using IPv6?
Select one:
a. More frequencies
b. Higher bandwidth
c. More addresses for networks and hosts
d. Faster connectivity
Which protocol operates at the application layer of the TCP/IP model?
Select one:
a. TCP
b. IP
c. ICMP
d. HTTP
Which standards organization publishes current Ethernet standards?
Select one:
a. ANSI
b. EIA/TIA
c. IEEE
d. CCITT
What is the main reason the OSI model was created?
Select one:
a. So different networks could communicate
b. So application developers can change only one layer's protocols at a time
c. To create a layered model larger than the DoD model
d. So Cisco could use the model
Which three IP addresses are public? (Choose three.)
Select one or more:
a. 128.107.0.7
b. 172.16.4.4
c. 10.1.1.1
d. 192.168.5.5
e. 64.104.7.7
f. 192.31.7.10
Select one:
a. It describes how computers access the LAN medium
b. It defines how computers connect to a LAN
c. It depicts the locations of main routers and switches in a LAN
d. It lists the number of computers, routers, and switches on the LAN
ABC Company requires preventive maintenance for all local network cabling once a year. Which task should be included in the preventive maintenance program?
Select one:
a. Inspect all patch cables for breaks
b. Replace all cable supports to prevent loose attachment points
c. Replace all labeling on the cables
d. Disconnect and reconnect all patch cables
A customer is considering a multipurpose device to create a home network. Which of the following can be considering as a multipurpose network device?
Select one:
a. Integrated Services Router.
b. Router
c. Web server
d. Wireless access point
e. Email server
Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?
Select one:
a. Physical layer
b. Session layer
c. Application layer
d. Data Link layer
Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two)
Select one or more:
a. Provides segmentation
b. Contains collisions
c. Allows switches to route traffic between sub-interfaces
d. Added security
e. Dedicated bandwidth
What is an advantage of using IPv6?
Select one:
a. More frequencies
b. Higher bandwidth
c. More addresses for networks and hosts
d. Faster connectivity
Which protocol operates at the application layer of the TCP/IP model?
Select one:
a. TCP
b. IP
c. ICMP
d. HTTP
Which standards organization publishes current Ethernet standards?
Select one:
a. ANSI
b. EIA/TIA
c. IEEE
d. CCITT
What is the main reason the OSI model was created?
Select one:
a. So different networks could communicate
b. So application developers can change only one layer's protocols at a time
c. To create a layered model larger than the DoD model
d. So Cisco could use the model
Which three IP addresses are public? (Choose three.)
Select one or more:
a. 128.107.0.7
b. 172.16.4.4
c. 10.1.1.1
d. 192.168.5.5
e. 64.104.7.7
f. 192.31.7.10
Local Area Networks (LAN) Final Examination (MCQ) (1 to 10)
Local Area Networks (LAN) Final Examination (MCQ)
What is identified by the 100 in the 100BASE-TX standard?
Select one:
a. The maximum number of network nodes
b. The maximum cable distance in meters
c. The maximum bandwidth in Mb/s
d. The series number of the standard
Which type of connection to the Internet is capable of the fastest transfer rates?
Select one:
a. Cable
b. dial-up
c. ISDN PRI
d. ISDN BRI
A technician is troubleshooting a problem where the user claims access to the Internet is not working, but there was access to the Internet the day before. Upon investigation, the technician determines that the user cannot access the network printer in the office either. The network printer is on the same network as the computer. The computer has 169.254.100.88 assigned as an IP address. What is the most likely problem?
Select one:
a. The network interface card driver needs to be updated
b. The computer cannot communicate with a DHCP server
c. The router that connects this network to other networks is down
d. The IP default gateway on the computer is incorrect
Communication mode which supports data in both directions at the same time is called
Select one:
a. Full Duplex
b. Multiplex
c. Simplex
d. Half Duplex
Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
Select one or more:
a. Data link
b. Session
c. Transport
d. Application
e. Presentation
f. Physical
g. Network
A user installs a new gigabit NIC in a PC. The user notices that the data transfer rate is much slower than expected. What should the user do to fix the problem?
Select one:
a. Change the NIC duplex setting from half duplex to full duplex.
b. Disable sleep mode
c. Change the value assigned to the NIC wake-on-LAN setting
d. Disable hibernation mode
What benefit is provided by a computer data network?
Select one:
a. Simplified troubleshooting
b. Decentralized administration
c. Increased security
d. Resource sharing
What is an example of network maintenance?
Select one:
a. Immediately turning off a network device if the network device is making an unusual sound
b. Not doing preventive maintenance regularly if the maintenance interrupts network activity
c. Using cable supports to identify the devices to which the cables are connected
d. Educating users on IT policies and procedures
What is a characteristic of the UDP protocol?
Select one:
a. End-to-end establishment before delivery
b. Error correction
c. Guaranteed delivery
d. Low overhead
Which is a characteristic of the Internet?
Select one:
a. It uses only physical addresses
b. It is localized to specific geographic locations
c. It is not centrally governed
d. It uses private IP addressing
Software Testing NVQ level 5 ICT Questions and Answers
1. The testing in which code is checked
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Red box testing
d) Green box testing
View Answer
Answer: b
2. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called
a) Unit testing
b) Regression testing
c) Adhoc testing
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
3. Acceptance testing is also known as
a) Grey box testing
b) White box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
View Answer
Answer: d
4. Which of the following is non-functional testing?
a) Black box testing
b) Performance testing
c) Unit testing
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
5. Beta testing is done at
a) User’s end
b) Developer’s end
View Answer
Answer: a
6. SPICE stands for
a) Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination
b) Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
c) Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
7. Unit testing is done by
a) Users
b) Developers
c) Customers
View Answer
Answer: b
8. Behavioral testing is
a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Grey box testing
View Answer
Answer: b
9. Which of the following is black box testing
a) Basic path testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
10. Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software
a) KLOC
b) Function Points
c) Size of module
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Which of the following term describes testing?
a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
2. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
View Answer
Answer: b
3. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?
a) Run chart
b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
4. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?
a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing
View Answer
Answer: c
5. White Box techniques are also classified as
a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
View Answer
Answer: b
6. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible
View Answer
Answer: c
7. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of these
View Answer
Answer: d
8. What are the various Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
9. Boundary value analysis belong to?
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
View Answer
Answer: b
10. Alpha testing is done at
a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is testing process’ first goal?
a) Bug prevention
b) Testing
c) Execution
d) Analyses
View Answer
Answer:a
2. Software mistakes during coding are known as
a) errors
b) failures
c) bugs
d) defects
View Answer
Answer:c
3. Name an evaluation technique to assess the quality of test cases.
a) Mutation analysis
b) Validation
c) Verification
d) Performance analysis
View Answer
Answer:a
4. Test should be conducted for every possible
a) data
b) case
c) variable
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
5. Which of the following is not a part of bug report?
a) Test case
b) Output
c) Software Version
d) LOC
View Answer
Answer:d
6. Which of the following is not a part of Execution Flow during debugging?
a) Step Over
b) Step Into
c) Step Up
d) Step Out
View Answer
Answer:c
7. Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.
a) Yellow box
b) White box
c) Gray box
d) Black box
View Answer
Answer:b
8. Which is a black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing?
a) Acceptance testing
b) Regression testing
c) Equivalence partitioning
d) Quality assurance
View Answer
Answer:c
9. Which of the following is the way of ensuring that the tests are actually testing code?
a) Control structure testing
b) Complex path testing
c) Code coverage
d) Quality assurance of software
View Answer
Answer:c
10. Effective testing will reduce _______ cost.
a) maintenance
b) design
c) coding
d) documentation
View Answer
Answer:a
11. Which of the following is a common pointwer problem?
a) Data sharing errors
b) Accessing data elements of the wrong type
c) Attempting to use memory areas after freeing them
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
1. Software Debugging is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted systematically.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer:b
2. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
a) Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
b) Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group
c) Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing strategy
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
3. ITG stands for
a) instantaneous test group
b) integration testing group
c) individual testing group
d) independent test group
View Answer
Answer:d
4. By collecting ________ during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt the testing process.
a) Failure intensity
b) Testing time
c) Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
5. Which of the following issues must be addressed if a successful software testing strategy is to be implemented?
a) Use effective formal technical reviews as a filter prior to testing
b) Develop a testing plan that emphasizes “rapid cycle testing.”
c) State testing objectives explicitly
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
6. Test cases should uncover errors like
a) Nonexistent loop termination
b) Comparison of different data types
c) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
7. Which of the following errors should not be tested when error handling is evaluated?
a) Error description is unintelligible
b) Error noted does not correspond to error encountered
c) Error condition causes system intervention prior to error handling
d) Error description provide enough information to assist in the location of the cause of the error
View Answer
Answer:a
8. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step
a) Integration testing
b) Unit testing
c) Completion of Testing
d) Regression Testing
View Answer
Answer:b
9. Which of the following is not regression test case?
a) A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions
b) Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change
c) Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed
d) Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform a specific software sub-function
View Answer
Answer:d
10. Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly used when “shrink-wrapped” software products are being developed?
a) Regression Testing
b) Integration testing
c) Smoke testing
d) Validation testing
View Answer
Answer:c
11. In which testing level the focus is on customer usage?
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Validation Testing
d) Both Alpha and Beta
View Answer
Answer:d
12. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer:b
This section on Software Engineering MCQs focuses on “Software Quality Assurance”.
1. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
2. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group
View Answer
Answer:b
4. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
5. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution
View Answer
Answer:a
6. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
View Answer
Answer:c
7. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
9. What is not included in prevention costs?
a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
View Answer
Answer:d
10. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of management.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer:a
1. Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from the given below.
a) FORTRAN
b) COBOL
c) Unix shell
d) C++
View Answer
Answer:c
2. Arrange the following activities for making a software product using 4GT.
i. Design strategy
ii. Transformation into product
iii. Implementation
iv. Requirement gathering
a) 1, 4, 3, 2
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 4, 1, 3, 2
d) 1, 3, 4, 2
View Answer
Answer:c
3. 4GL is an example of ______________ processing.
a) White Box
b) Black Box
c) Functional
d) Both a & b
e) Both b & c
View Answer
Answer:e
4. The 4GT Model is a package of __________________.
a) CASE Tools
b) Software tools
c) Software Programs
View Answer
Answer:b
5. Which of the following is not a type of a 4GL? One originating _______________.
a) on Lisp machine
b) on report generators
c) from database query languages
d) from GUI creators
View Answer
Answer:a
9. What is a major advantage of using a 4GT Model for producing small scale products,
applications or programs ?
a) Improved productivity of software engineers.
b) Reduction in software development time.
c) 4GT helped by CASE tools and code generators offers a credible solution to many software problems.
View Answer
Answer:b
10. Which of the following model has a major disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a software life cycle model ?
a) Spiral Model
b) Waterfall Model
c) Rad Model
d) 4GT Model
View Answer
Answer:d
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Red box testing
d) Green box testing
View Answer
Answer: b
2. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called
a) Unit testing
b) Regression testing
c) Adhoc testing
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
3. Acceptance testing is also known as
a) Grey box testing
b) White box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
View Answer
Answer: d
4. Which of the following is non-functional testing?
a) Black box testing
b) Performance testing
c) Unit testing
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
5. Beta testing is done at
a) User’s end
b) Developer’s end
View Answer
Answer: a
6. SPICE stands for
a) Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination
b) Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
c) Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
7. Unit testing is done by
a) Users
b) Developers
c) Customers
View Answer
Answer: b
8. Behavioral testing is
a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Grey box testing
View Answer
Answer: b
9. Which of the following is black box testing
a) Basic path testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
10. Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software
a) KLOC
b) Function Points
c) Size of module
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Which of the following term describes testing?
a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
2. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
View Answer
Answer: b
3. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?
a) Run chart
b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
4. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?
a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing
View Answer
Answer: c
5. White Box techniques are also classified as
a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
View Answer
Answer: b
6. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible
View Answer
Answer: c
7. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of these
View Answer
Answer: d
8. What are the various Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
9. Boundary value analysis belong to?
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
View Answer
Answer: b
10. Alpha testing is done at
a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is testing process’ first goal?
a) Bug prevention
b) Testing
c) Execution
d) Analyses
View Answer
Answer:a
2. Software mistakes during coding are known as
a) errors
b) failures
c) bugs
d) defects
View Answer
Answer:c
3. Name an evaluation technique to assess the quality of test cases.
a) Mutation analysis
b) Validation
c) Verification
d) Performance analysis
View Answer
Answer:a
4. Test should be conducted for every possible
a) data
b) case
c) variable
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
5. Which of the following is not a part of bug report?
a) Test case
b) Output
c) Software Version
d) LOC
View Answer
Answer:d
6. Which of the following is not a part of Execution Flow during debugging?
a) Step Over
b) Step Into
c) Step Up
d) Step Out
View Answer
Answer:c
7. Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.
a) Yellow box
b) White box
c) Gray box
d) Black box
View Answer
Answer:b
8. Which is a black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing?
a) Acceptance testing
b) Regression testing
c) Equivalence partitioning
d) Quality assurance
View Answer
Answer:c
9. Which of the following is the way of ensuring that the tests are actually testing code?
a) Control structure testing
b) Complex path testing
c) Code coverage
d) Quality assurance of software
View Answer
Answer:c
10. Effective testing will reduce _______ cost.
a) maintenance
b) design
c) coding
d) documentation
View Answer
Answer:a
11. Which of the following is a common pointwer problem?
a) Data sharing errors
b) Accessing data elements of the wrong type
c) Attempting to use memory areas after freeing them
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
1. Software Debugging is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted systematically.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer:b
2. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
a) Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
b) Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group
c) Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing strategy
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
3. ITG stands for
a) instantaneous test group
b) integration testing group
c) individual testing group
d) independent test group
View Answer
Answer:d
4. By collecting ________ during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt the testing process.
a) Failure intensity
b) Testing time
c) Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
5. Which of the following issues must be addressed if a successful software testing strategy is to be implemented?
a) Use effective formal technical reviews as a filter prior to testing
b) Develop a testing plan that emphasizes “rapid cycle testing.”
c) State testing objectives explicitly
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
6. Test cases should uncover errors like
a) Nonexistent loop termination
b) Comparison of different data types
c) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
7. Which of the following errors should not be tested when error handling is evaluated?
a) Error description is unintelligible
b) Error noted does not correspond to error encountered
c) Error condition causes system intervention prior to error handling
d) Error description provide enough information to assist in the location of the cause of the error
View Answer
Answer:a
8. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step
a) Integration testing
b) Unit testing
c) Completion of Testing
d) Regression Testing
View Answer
Answer:b
9. Which of the following is not regression test case?
a) A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions
b) Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change
c) Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed
d) Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform a specific software sub-function
View Answer
Answer:d
10. Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly used when “shrink-wrapped” software products are being developed?
a) Regression Testing
b) Integration testing
c) Smoke testing
d) Validation testing
View Answer
Answer:c
11. In which testing level the focus is on customer usage?
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Validation Testing
d) Both Alpha and Beta
View Answer
Answer:d
12. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer:b
This section on Software Engineering MCQs focuses on “Software Quality Assurance”.
1. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
2. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group
View Answer
Answer:b
4. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:b
5. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution
View Answer
Answer:a
6. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
View Answer
Answer:c
7. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:c
8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:a
9. What is not included in prevention costs?
a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
View Answer
Answer:d
10. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of management.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer:a
1. Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from the given below.
a) FORTRAN
b) COBOL
c) Unix shell
d) C++
View Answer
Answer:c
2. Arrange the following activities for making a software product using 4GT.
i. Design strategy
ii. Transformation into product
iii. Implementation
iv. Requirement gathering
a) 1, 4, 3, 2
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 4, 1, 3, 2
d) 1, 3, 4, 2
View Answer
Answer:c
3. 4GL is an example of ______________ processing.
a) White Box
b) Black Box
c) Functional
d) Both a & b
e) Both b & c
View Answer
Answer:e
4. The 4GT Model is a package of __________________.
a) CASE Tools
b) Software tools
c) Software Programs
View Answer
Answer:b
5. Which of the following is not a type of a 4GL? One originating _______________.
a) on Lisp machine
b) on report generators
c) from database query languages
d) from GUI creators
View Answer
Answer:a
9. What is a major advantage of using a 4GT Model for producing small scale products,
applications or programs ?
a) Improved productivity of software engineers.
b) Reduction in software development time.
c) 4GT helped by CASE tools and code generators offers a credible solution to many software problems.
View Answer
Answer:b
10. Which of the following model has a major disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a software life cycle model ?
a) Spiral Model
b) Waterfall Model
c) Rad Model
d) 4GT Model
View Answer
Answer:d
What is a network ? • Describe media types, topologies & standards.
A network is two or more computer link together to share resources(such as printer) exchange files.
network link through cables, telephone lines, radio waves, satellites, or infrared light beams.
Types of Networks
LAN- Local area network,covered small geographical area.
WAN-Wide Area Network,covered large geographical area such as the federal
government.
Metropolitan Area network (MAN)
Wireless LAN (WLAN)
Storage Area Network (SAN)
Networking Typologies
Bus Topologyallows information to be directed from one computer to the other.
Ring Topology
Uses a token to pass information from 1 computer to the other. A token is attached to the message by the sender to identify which computer should receive the message. as the message moves around the ring,each computer examines the token. if the computer identifies the token as its own, then it will process the information.
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